1) Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with _____ after the passage of NAFTA, _____ became the United States’ second largest trading partner.
A. Mexico, Venezuela
B. Canada, Venezuela
C. Great Britain, Paraguay
D. Mexico, Canada
E. Canada, Mexico
2) “Generally accepted” in the phrase generally accepted accounting principles means that the principles __________.
A. have been approved for use by the managements of business firms
B. have been approved by the Internal Revenue Service
C. have substantial authoritative support
D. are proven theories of accounting
30) Building a dynamic organization is another way of describing which function of management?
4) Sam’s Used Cars uses the specific identification method of costing inventory. During March, Sam purchased three cars for $6,000, $7,500, and $9,750, respectively. During March, two cars are sold for $9,000 each. Sam determines that at March 31, the $9,750 car is still on hand. What is Sam’s gross profit for March?
5) Hess, Inc. sells a single product with a contribution margin of $12 per unit and fixed costs of $74,400 and sales for the current year of $100,000. How much is Hess’s break even point?
A. 2,133 units
B. 6,200 units
D. 4,600 units
6) As Plant Controller, you are trying to determine which costs over which you have the most control on a day to day basis. Your goal is to achieve better profitability. The Plant Operations Manager suggests that overhead is the easiest area to directly reduce costs. Which of the following items would be classified as manufacturing overhead?
A. The western division’s vice president’s salary
B. Cost of landscaping the corporate office
C. General corporate liability insurance
D. Factory janitor
7) What is the preparation of reports for each level of responsibility in the company’s organization chart called?
A. Master budgeting analysis
B. Exception reporting
C. Responsibility reporting
D. Static reporting
8) Disney’s variable costs are 30% of sales. The company is contemplating an advertising campaign that will cost $22,000. If sales are expected to increase $40,000, by how much will the company’s net income increase?
9) The cost of an asset and its fair market value are __________.
A. never the same
B. irrelevant when the asset is used by the business in its operations
C. the same on the date of acquisition
D. the same when the asset is sold
10) Which one of the following is a product cost?
A. Indirect labor
B. Sales person’s salaries
C. Advertising costs
D. Office salaries
11) What exists when budgeted costs exceed actual results?
A. A budgeting error
B. An unfavorable difference
C. An excess profit
D. A favorable difference
12) The income statement and balance sheet columns of Pine Company’s worksheet reflects the following totals:
Income Statement Balance Sheet
Dr. Cr. Dr. Cr.
Totals $58,000 $48,000 $34,000 $44,000
Closing entries are necessary for __________.
A. permanent accounts only
B. both permanent and temporary accounts
C. permanent or real accounts only
D. temporary accounts only
13) Managerial accounting __________.
A. is concerned with costing products
B. pertains to the entity as a whole and is highly aggregated
C. places emphasis on special-purpose information
D. is governed by generally accepted accounting principles
14) H55 Company sells two products, beer and wine. Beer has a 10 percent profit margin and wine has a 12 percent profit margin. Beer has a 27 percent contribution margin and wine has a 25 percent contribution margin. If other factors are equal, which product should H55 push to customers?
B. Selling either results in the same additional income for the company
C. It should sell an equal quantity of both
15) Lekeisha’s income exceeds her expenditures. Lekeisha is a __________.
A. saver who demands money from the financial system
B. borrower who demands money from the financial system
C. borrower who supplies money to the financial system
D. saver who supplies money to the financial system
16) Maurice receives $100 as a birthday gift. In deciding how to spend the money, he narrows his options down to four choices: Option A, Option B, Option C, and Option D. Each option costs $100. Finally he decides on Option B. The opportunity cost of this decision is __________.
A. the value to Maurice of the option he would have chosen had Option B not been available
D. the value to Maurice of Options A, C and D combined
17) A production possibilities frontier will be a straight line if __________.
A. the economy is producing efficiently
B. the economy is engaged in trade with at least one other economy
C. increasing the production of one good by x units entails no opportunity cost in terms of the other good
D. increasing the production of one good by x units entails a constant opportunity cost in terms of the other good
18) In economics, the cost of something is __________.
A. what you give up to get it
B. often impossible to quantify, even in principle
C. the dollar amount of obtaining it
D. always measured in units of time given up to get it
19) A tax on an imported good is called a __________.
A. supply tax
B. trade tax
20) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?
A. GDP is to a nation’s economy as household income is to a household.
B. GDP increases if the total population increases.
C. GDP measures two things at once: the total income of everyone in the economy and the unemployment rate.
D. Money continuously flows from households to government and then back to households, and GDP measures this flow of money.
21) In computing GDP, market prices are used to value final goods and services because __________.
A. if market prices are out of line with how people value goods, the government sets price ceilings and price floors
B. Market prices are not used in computing GDP
C. market prices reflect the values of goods and services
D. market prices do not change much over time, so it is easy to make comparisons between years
22) Which of the following statements about GDP is correct?
A. Nominal GDP values production at market prices, whereas real GDP values production at the cost of the resources used in the production process.
B. Nominal GDP consistently underestimates the value of production, whereas real GDP consistently overestimates the value of production.
C. Nominal GDP values production at current prices, whereas real GDP values production at constant prices.
D. Nominal GDP values production at constant prices, whereas real GDP values production at current prices.
23) Which of the following is not correct?
A. The U.S. debt per-person is large compared with average lifetime income.
B. In 2005, the U.S. government had a deficit.
C. A potential cost of deficits is that they reduce national saving, thereby reducing growth of the capital stock and output growth.
D. Deficits give people the opportunity to consume at the expense of their children, but they do not require them to do so.
24) The part of the balance of payments account that lists all long-term flows of payments is called the:
A. balance of trade.
B. financial and capital account.
C. government financial account.
D. current account.
25) Edward Prescott and Finn Kydland won the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2004. One of their contributions was to argue that if a central bank could convince people to expect zero inflation, then the Fed would be tempted to raise output by increasing inflation. This possibility is known as __________.
A. the sacrifice ratio dilemma
B. the monetary policy reaction lag
C. the time inconsistency of policy
D. inflation targeting
26) In general, the longest lag for __________.
A. fiscal policy is the time it takes to change policy, while for monetary policy the longest lag is the time it takes for policy to affect aggregate demand
B. both fiscal and monetary policy is the time it takes for policy to affect aggregate demand
C. monetary policy is the time it takes to change policy, while for fiscal policy the longest lag is the time it takes for policy to affect aggregate demand
D. both fiscal and monetary policy is the time it takes to change policy
27) Consider two items that might be included in GDP: (1) The estimated rental value of owner-occupied housing; and (2) purchases of newly-constructed homes. How are these two items accounted for when GDP is calculated?
A. Only item (2) is included in GDP and it is included in the investment component.
B. Item (1) is included in the consumption component, while item (2) is included in the investment component.
C. Item (1) is included in the investment component, while item (2) is included in the consumption component.
D. Both item (1) and item (2) are included in the consumption component of GDP.
28) Managers will utilize __________ skills with increasing frequency as they risewithin an organization.
B. Interpersonal and communication
E. Conceptual and decision
29) Which of these represent skills that managers need?
A. Interpersonal, quantitative, and professional
B. Technical, interpersonal & communication and conceptual & decision making
C. Professional, technical and interpersonal & communication
D. Conceptual & decision making, professional and technical
E. Interpersonal & communication, conceptual & decision making and professional
30) The standards and rules that are recognized as a general guide for financial reporting are called __________.
A. standards of financial reporting
B. operating guidelines
C. generally accepted accounting principles
D. generally accepted accounting standards
31) Your roommate is interested in starting a business and everybody has been giving him different information about being an entrepreneur. Since you have been studying about entrepreneurship and new ventures, which of these would you tell him is true?
A. Anyone can start a business
B. All entrepreneurs need venture capital in order to get started
C. Successful entrepreneurs take very careful, calculated risks
D. Entrepreneurs are their own bosses and completely independent
E. Money should not be considered a start-up ingredient
32) The term used to refer to all kinds of differences including religious affiliation, age, disability status, economic class and lifestyle in addition to gender, race, ethnicity and nationality is:
B. Managerial ethics
33) A manager’s ability to stimulate people to be high performers is referred to as:
34) A series of quality standards developed by a committee working under the International Organization for Standardization to improve total quality in all businesses for the benefit of both producers and consumers is:
A. Total quality management
B. Customer-based integration
C. Computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)
D. Just-in-time control (JIT)
E. ISO 9000
35) Japanese manufacturers’ kaizen (continuous improvement) programs enable them to maintain:
A. A strategic alliance
B. A homogeneous workforce
C. Positive working relationships with all employees
D. A Learning advantage over their competition
E. Larger, faster facilities
36) Listening to employee suggestions, gaining support for organizational objectives and fostering an atmosphere of teamwork are all considered:
A. Technical skills
C. Professional skills
D. Interpersonal/communication skills
E. Diagnostic skills
37) The basic components of an effective sexual harassment policy include the following EXCEPT:
A. To develop an organization wide policy on sexual harassment
B. To establish a means for ongoing training
C. To act immediately when employees complain of sexual harassment
D. To establish a performance appraisal system
E. To establish a formal complaint procedure
38) Teams that operate separately from the regular work structure and exist temporarily are known as:
A. Management teams
B. Transnational teams
C. Self-managed teams
D. Parallel teams
E. Self-designing teams
39) The Aquatic Center, Inc. periodically reviews the goals of the company. During the process, The Aquatic Center managers analyze their current strategies as compared to their competitors, determine goals that they will pursue and decide upon specific actions for each area of the company to take in pursuit of these goals. The Aquatic Center managers have been engaged in the management function of:
A. Goal Coordination
40) As related to managing of human resources, diversity refers to:
A. Differences in demographics (such as age, race, gender, disability status, lifestyle, veteran status, educational level, etc.)
B. Differences in pay methods (such as hourly, salaried, overtime, hazard-pay, commissioned, etc.)
C. Differences in employee benefit plans (such as pensions, insurance, vacations, memberships, etc.)
D. Differences in retention strategies (such as training, hiring, incentives, etc)
E. Differences in recruiting methods (such as newspapers, schools, flyers, magazines, agencies, etc.)
41) __________ is the process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals.
B. Decision making
42) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.
For this sample, the median is _____.
43) Use the following table to answer question:
P(S | W) is approximately _____.
44) Use the following table to answer question:
P(M A) is approximately _____.
45) Dullco Manufacturing claims that its alkaline batteries last forty hours on average in a certain type of portable CD player. Tests on a random sample of 18 batteries showed a mean battery life of 37.8 hours with a standard deviation of 5.4 hours.
In determining the p-value for reporting the study’s findings, which of the following is true?
A. The p-value is equal to .05.
B. The p-value is greater than .05.
C. The p-value cannot be determined without specifying .
D. The p-value is less than .05.
46) William used a sample of 68 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between Crime (annual property crimes per 100,000 persons) and Income (median income per capita). His estimated regression equation was Crime = 428 + .050 Income.
Which outcomes would be likely in a bivariate regression on 45 randomly chosen U.S. cities in 2005 with
Y = number of robberies in each city (thousands of robberies) and
X = size of police force in each city (thousands of police)?
A. High R2 (due to city size).
B. Positive slope (due to city size).
C. No correlation.
47) Twelve randomly-chosen students were asked how many times they had missed class during a certain semester, with this result: 2, 1, 5, 1, 1, 3, 4, 3, 1, 1, 5, 18.
For this sample, which measure of central tendency is least representative of the “typical” student?
48) Likely reasons for inaccurate control limits would include which of the following?
A. Process variation was not zero, as expected.
B. The engineering parameter for variance is unknown.
C. There was insufficient preliminary sampling.
D. The engineers were underpaid for their work.
49) You are faced with a linear programming objective function of:
Max P = $20X + $30Y
and constraints of:
3X + 4Y = 24 (Constraint A)
5X – Y = 18 (Constraint B)
You discover that the shadow price for Constraint A is 7.5 and the shadow price for Constraint B is 0. Which of these statements is TRUE?
A. The most you would want to pay for an additional unit of A would be $7.50.
B. You can change quantities of X and Y at no cost for Constraint B.
C. For every additional unit of the objective function you create, the price of A rises by $7.50.
D. For every additional unit of the objective function you create, you lose 0 units of B.
50) A project has three paths. A–B–C has a length of 25 days. A–D–C has a length of 15 days. Finally, A–E–C has a length of 20 days. Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The expected duration of this project is 25 + 15 + 20 = 60 days.
B. A–D–C is the critical path.
C. The expected duration of this project is 25 days.
D. A–B–C has the most slack.
51) Which one of the following statements concerning production and staffing plans is best?
A. A master production schedule is a projected statement of income, costs, and profits.
B. Aggregation can be performed along three dimensions: product families, labor, and time.
C. Production plans are based primarily on information from the master production plan.
D. A staffing plan is the intermediate link between the business plan and the master production schedule.
52) While glancing over the sensitivity report, you note that the stitching labor has a shadow price of $10 and a lower limit of 24 hours with an upper limit of 36 hours. If your original right hand value for stitching labor was 30 hours, you know that:
A. you would lose $80 if one of your workers missed an entire 8 hour shift.
B. the next worker that offers to work an extra 8 hours should receive at least $80.
C. you would be willing pay up to $60 for someone to work another 6 hours.
D. you can send someone home 6 hours early and still pay them the $60 they would have earned while on the clock.
53) The costs of delivering products in the _____ channel are much higher than delivering products in the _____ channel.
A. physical, digital
B. e-commerce, digital
C. physical, financial
D. digital, e-commerce
E. digital, physical
54) When customers access a Web site and make purchases, they generate __________.
A. Tracking cookies
B. Web data
D. Clickstream data
E. Hyperlink data
55) _____ is the integration of economic, social, cultural, and ecological facets of life, enabled by information.
D. business environment
56) Various organizations that promote fair and responsible use of information systems often develop __________.
A. a code of ethics
B. responsibility charters
C. a strategic plan
D. a mission statement
E. a goals outline
57) What is _____ is not necessarily _____.
A. Illegal, unethical
B. Unethical, legal
C. Ethical, illegal
D. Unethical, illegal
E. Ethical, legal
58) _____ provides users with a view of what is happening, where _____ addresses why it is happening.
A. Multidimensional data analysis, structured query language
B. Multidimensional data analysis, neural networks
C. Data mining, multidimensional data analysis
D. Data mining, expert system
E. Multidimensional data analysis, data mining
59) Computer support is greatest for which of the following problems?
A. Semistructured and strategic planning
B. Semistructured and management control
C. Unstructured and operational control
D. Structured and operational control
E. Structured and management control
60) The management cockpit best exemplifies which type of system?
A. Decision support system
B. Functional area information system
C. Expert system
D. Digital dashboard
E. Group decision support system
61) _____ is the efficient and effective execution of specific tasks.
A. Operational control
C. Management control
D. Strategic planning
62) Geocoding is __________.
A. accessing geographical information
B. integrating maps with spatially oriented databases and other databases
C. integrating organizational transactions with spatially oriented databases
D. programming spatially oriented databases
E. encrypting spatial information
63) At 8% compounded annually, how long will it take $750 to double?
A. 48 months
B. 6.5 years
C. 9 years
D. 12 years
64) Which of the following represents an attempt to measure the earnings of the firm’s operations over a given time period?
A. Cash flow statement
B. Balance sheet
C. Income statement
D. Quarterly statement
65) A machine costs $1,000, has a three-year life, and has an estimated salvage value of $100. It will generate after-tax annual cash flows (ACF) of $600 a year, starting next year. If your required rate of return for the project is 10%, what is the NPV of this investment? (Round your answerwer to the nearest $10.)
66) Disadvantages of using current liabilities as opposed to long-term debt include:
A. higher cash flow exposure
B. greater risk of illiquidity, and uncertainty of interest costs
C. decreased risk of liquidity
D. certainty of interest costs
E. uncertainty of future liabilities
67) Petrified Forest Skin Care, Inc. pays an annual perpetual dividend of $1.70 per share. If the stock is currently selling for $21.25 per share, what is the expected rate of return on this stock?
68) Which of the following is most consistent with the hedging principle in working capital management?
A. Fixed assets should be financed with short-term notes payable.
B. Inventory should be financed with preferred stock.
C. Accounts receivable should be financed with short-term lines of credit.
D. Borrow on a floating rate basis to finance investments in permanent assets.
69) An increase in future value can be caused by an increase in the __________.
A. original amount invested
B. annual interest rate and number of compounding periods
C. rate of return
D. dividends paid
E. starting value
70) If the quote for a forward exchange contract is greater than the computed price, the forward contract is:
A. at equilibrium.
C. a good buy.
71) Your company is considering an investment in a project which would require an initial outlay of $300,000 and produce expected cash flows in Years 1 through 5 of $87,385 per year. You have determined that the current after-tax cost of the firm’s capital (required rate of return) for each source of financing is as follows:
Cost of debt 8%
Cost of preferred stock 12%
Cost of common stock 16%
Long-term debt currently makes up 20% of the capital structure, preferred stock 10%, and common stock 70%. What is the net present value of this project?
72) Suppose you determine that the NPV of a project is $1,525,855. What does that mean?
A. The project’s IRR would have to be less that the firm’s discount rate.
B. The project would add value to the firm.
C. Under all conditions, the project’s payback would be less than the profitability index.
D. In all cases, investing in this project would be better than investing in a project that has an NPV of $850,000.
73) The common stockholders are most concerned with:
A. the spread between the return generated on new investments and the investor’s required rate of return.
B. the size of the firm’s beginning earnings per share.
C. the risk of the investment.
D. the percentage of profits retained.
74) PepsiCo calculates unlevered betas for each peer group in order to:
A. eliminate different financial risks.
B. eliminate competitive factors.
C. eliminate judgment factors.
D. eliminate different business risks.
75) Which of the following best represents operating income?
A. Income from discontinued operations
B. Earnings before interest and taxes
C. Income from capital gains
D. Income after financing activities
76) In comparison to the buying of final consumers, the purchasing of organizational buyers:
A. is even less predictable.
B. leans basically toward economy, quality, and dependability.
C. is always emotional.
D. is strictly economic and not at all emotional.
E. is always based on competitive bids from multiple suppliers.
77) The basic objective of the U.S. market-directed economic system is to:
A. achieve an annual growth rate of at least 10 percent.
B. provide each person with an equal share of the economic output.
C. make the most efficient use of the country’s resources.
D. minimize inflation.
E. satisfy consumer needs as they–the consumers–see them.
78) Comparing GDP for foreign countries can help a marketing manager evaluate potential markets if the manager remembers that:
A. GDP measures show people’s tendency to buy particular products.
B. income tends to be evenly distributed among consumers in most countries.
C. GDP estimates may not be very accurate for very different cultures and economies.
D. Other countries most likely don’t use the US Dollar as their primary currency.
E. GDP measures show the degree of competition in a market.
79) A firm’s “marketing mix” decision areas would NOT include:
80) __________ is a marketing management aid which refers to how customers think about proposed and/or present brands in a market.
A. Brand familiarity
C. Market scanning
D. Customer relationship management (CRM)
E. Market segmentation
81) The “four Ps” of a marketing mix are:
A. Production, Personnel, Price, and Physical Distribution
B. Promotion, Production, Price, and People
C. Potential customers, Product, Price, and Personal Selling
D. Product, Price, Promotion, and Profit
E. Product, Place, Promotion, and Price
82) When evaluating macro-marketing:
A. the evaluation is necessarily subjective.
B. the best approach is to consider the profit generated by individual firms within the overall system.
C. one must determine how efficiently the society’s resources are used.
D. one must consider the society’s role in the marketing system.
E. one must consider each individual firm’s role in the marketing system.
83) A cluster analysis of the “toothpaste market” would probably show that:
A. the broad product-market can be served effectively with one marketing mix.
B. most consumers are mainly concerned about brightness of teeth.
C. factors such as taste, price, and “sex appeal” are not important.
D. most consumers are concerned about cost.
E. different market segments seek different product benefits.
84) Clustering techniques applied to segmenting markets __________.
A. usually require computers to group people based on data from market research
B. remove the need for managerial judgment
C. eliminate the need for marketing managers to specify in advance what dimensions might be relevant for grouping consumers
D. doesn’t apply to demographic data
E. is time consuming and expensive
85) The three basic tasks of ALL managers, according to the text, are:
A. planning, staffing, and evaluating.
B. marketing, production, and finance.
C. execution, feedback, and control.
D. planning, implementation, and control.
E. hiring, training, and compensating.
86) The difference between target marketing and mass marketing is that target marketing:
A. means focusing on a small market.
B. focuses on short-run objectives, while mass marketing focuses on long-run objectives.
C. focuses on specific customers, while mass marketing aims at an entire market.
D. aims at increased sales, while mass marketing focuses on increased profits.
E. does not rely on e-commerce but mass marketing does.
87) When one considers the strategy decisions organized by the four Ps, branding is related to packaging as:
A. store location is to sales force selection.
B. personal selling is to mass selling.
C. production is to marketing.
D. branding is to pricing.
E. pricing is to promotion.
88) Which of the following statements is not true under the Fair Labor Standards Act?
A. Children ages 16 and 17 may work unlimited hours in nonhazardous jobs.
B. Persons age 18 or over may work unlimited hours in nonhazardous jobs.
C. Children ages 14 and 15 may work limited hours in nonhazardous jobs.
D. Children under 14 cannot work at all, except on farms.
E. Persons age 18 or over may work unlimited hours in hazardous jobs.
89) Probable cause is most directly associated with which step of the criminal process?
A. Plea bargaining
E. Jury deliberations
90) Which of the following statements is generally not true about state intermediate appellate courts?
A. The appellate court allows the parties to make oral arguments outlining their position.
B. The appellate court allows the parties to introduce new evidence so long as it was not previously introduced at the original trial.
C. The appellate court usually allows the parties to file briefs outlining support for their positions.
D. The appellate court reviews the record of the trial court.
E. Appellate court decisions are final and further appeal is not possible.
91) Which of the following terms need not be disclosed under Truth-in-Lending Act?
A. The terms available from competitors.
B. The total finance charge.
C. The cash price of the product.
D. The annual percentage rate (APR).
E. Amount of payments.
92) Which of the following activities by an administrative agency requires public notice and participation?
A. Substantive rule making and statements of policy only.
B. Statements of policy only.
C. Substantive rule making and interpretive rule making only.
D. Substantive rule making only.
E. Substantive rule making, interpretive rule making, and statements of policy.
93) Which of the following is not one of the Caux Round Table Principles for International Business?
A. Promotion of Multiculturalism.
B. Respect for the Environment.
C. Support for Multilateral Trade.
D. Avoidance of Illicit Operations.
E. Responsibility of Business Beyond Shareholders Toward Stakeholders.
94) The theory of business social responsibility that holds that a business owes duties solely to produce the highest return for its shareholders is:
A. The corporate citizenship theory.
B. The moral minimum theory.
C. The social audit theory.
D. The stakeholder interest theory.
E. The maximizing profits theory.
95) Which social responsibility theory has been advocated by Novel Prizewinning economist Milton Friedman?
A. Corporate citizenship.
B. Maximizing profits.
C. Corporate social audit.
D. Stakeholder interest.
E. Moral minimum.
96) Which of the following lists, in descending priority, of sources considered by most courts in settling questions of international law?
A. Conventions, treaties, comity, customs
B. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity
C. Treaties, customs, conventions, comity
D. Conventions, comity, customs, general principles of law
E. Treaties, customs, general principles of law, judicial decisions and teachings
97) If the value of the collateral is less than the debt owed to the secured party, then:
A. The secured party gets to take some other property as collateral so his entire debt is secured.
B. The secured party is still secured for the entire debt owed him.
C. The secured party is unsecured for the entire debt.
D. The secured party loses the excess of debt over the value of the security.
E. The secured party is unsecured for the excess of debt over the value of the security.
98) One study found that manufacturing labor costs about _____ an hour in China, compared to _____ dollars in the United States.
A. $2; about 25
B. Less than $1; about 15
C. Less than $1; about 40
D. Less than $1; about 25
E. About $2; about 15
99) Which country does the text describe as becoming the largest producer and consumer of many of the world’s goods?
100) The cost principle requires that when assets are acquired, they be recorded at __________.
A. list price
B. selling price
C. exchange price paid
D. appraisal value